Lots of great questions being raised here! Let's break this one down from the top.
Dealing with a
strengthen question, first stop: argument core!
PREMISE: three countries (same population size)
all three face same ulcer-causes
we have fewer prescriptions than the other two (in all socioeconomic groups
CONCLUSION: we have fewer ulcers than the other two
Wait...this argument just make a giant term shift -
prescriptions for ulcers and
actual ulcers are two totally different things. What if all our people are super stoic, and so have ulcers, but no prescriptions? Or what if people in the other country get prescriptions for giggles, even without ulcers? If those things were true, it would royally screw up this argument.
In essence, this argument is assuming that the number of prescriptions correlates to the number of actual ulcers (i.e., fewer prescriptions = fewer ulcers).
(D) bolsters this handily. If our people-with-ulcers are "just as likely" to get a prescription, that makes it a bit more likely that # of ulcers = # of prescriptions.
Note that the idea of 'same population size' and 'same ulcer-causes' and 'all socioeconomic strata' are simply meant to shield the argument from criticisms on those grounds. For instance, if the population sizes of the countries were wildly different from one another, this argument would have another significant flaw.
Now, let's tackle the
wrong answers:
(A) This
might be interesting if we knew something about how the number of prescriptions compared between the two other countries - but we don't. So the comparison of the ulcer rates between those two countries doesn't really tell us anything. This is a comparison trap - we're interested in how OUR country compares to THE OTHER countries, not how the other countries compare to one another.
(B) Weakener! If our people are super stoic, they are going to suffer through their ulcers without getting prescriptions. As a result, our 'prescription rate' might look blissfully low, but our 'ulcer rate' could be painfully high.
(C) We don't care about other countries outside of these three. And if we did include this information, it's just more info that has the same flavor as the premise - now even more countries have higher prescription rates. That doesn't bolster any assumption.
(E) This is super tempting. We're likely to read this as saying that our country isn't underreporting prescriptions. And if this answer choice had simply said something like "The physician's country is unlikely to fail to report a prescription for ulcers", it would totally help the argument. Similarly, if it had said "The physician's country is less likely to underreport prescriptions for ulcers than the other countries are", that would also help the argument - it would suggest that the other countries prescription rates are actually even higher than we thought.
But the answer choice does not actually focus on the idea of not
underreporting. It focuses on
accuracy as a general matter. Saying that our country's reporting is more accurate than the other countries might just as easily mean that we are less likely to
overreport. If that were the case, then it becomes more likely that the other countries apparent prescription rates are inflated, which would WEAKEN the argument!
So, if this answer choice were true, the other countries' prescription rates are less accurate - but which direction? No way to know.
Keep your radar sharply tuned for answers like this that tempt you to paraphrase them to say something they don't actually say!
I hope this helps clear some things up!