Hi, i know this is easy question, as i was reviewing it, i find D is also true, can anyone explain why is it false? is it because smith will just not be obliged to repair all structural defects?
thanks
timmydoeslsat Wrote:I did not make a good response in the comment above. Let me do better on this one.
This is a must be true question. Here are the facts that we are expected to push out an inference.
Jones sells to Smith. After ownership is transferred, Jones will be responsible for "major structural defects." for up to a year. They define major struct. defects as defects in the roof or components supporting the roof. Jones will not be responsible for anything else.
It is a truss roof which means that the only walls that support it are exterior walls.
So we know that for Jones to be responsible within the year, there must either be a defect in the roof itself or the exterior walls. Non-exterior walls are not supporting the roof, so there is no way that this will be classified as a major struct. defect.
As for answer choice D, this is wrong for the huge reason of us not knowing what kind of responsibility Smith has. Perhaps those non-exterior walls will have its responsibility vested in the builders.