Hi everyone, I have 2 questions regarding Q8.
1. Can we say that there's an
implicit causal argument? I mean,
is it safe to suggest that the author claims "
because new classical music lovers are most comfortable with classical music as recorded music and have no desire to hear live performances, audiences at classical concerts are shrinking these days"?
2. In the end of the argument, the author claims that new classical music lovers don't have desire to hear
live performances. I was tempted by (D), thinking that "recordings of actual public concerts" could be some sort of "hearing live performances". Am I stretching too far from the author's claim?
Hope someone could help clarify! Thanks a lot