by JohnZ880 Sun Jul 29, 2018 2:06 pm
This is a type of RC question that really bugs me. In my reading, the passage almost suggests the opposite of C. It doesn't suggest that natural predators should always be used if adequate. Rather, the author frames the debate between pesticides and natural predators as one of relative effectiveness, not basic satisfaction.
Line 1: "Sometimes there is no more EFFECTIVE means of controlling an agricultural pest than..."
Paragraph 2: Literally all about how Typhlodromus is an effective predator that both kills the prey population without damaging the crop
Line 50: "Applying parathion IN THIS INSTANCE is a clear case in which using a pesticide would do far more harm than good to an agricultural enterprise"
This is a very, very narrow claim. Why is it better? Because Parathion kills the predators and doesn't kill the cyclamen mites, whereas Typhlodromus kills the prey and doesn't damage the crops. Thus, Typhlodromus is more effective and should be favored.
The author's point seems to be rather simple. If you imagine he/she in a conversation, he/she would probably say something like, "hey farmers, don't just assume that pesticides are better. In fact, sometimes pesticides are counterproductive in that they kill natural predators, while doing little damage to the actual prey population."
The basic inference I would draw from the above line of reasoning is that in the event that natural predators are not more effective than natural predators, pesticides should be used. Relative effectiveness still absolutely allows for the scenario in which natural predators may be adequate (C), but not necessarily more effective.
Where am I going wrong here?