Again, let me reiterate that I'm not in love with this question, either, so I'm defending LSAT's thinking as my job.
Let me try to address some of your points:
How about a scenario where an upper limit is set but this limit is so high that it allows a candidate to vastly outspend their rivals?I agree, an upper limit could still allow one candidate to vastly outspend his rivals.
But (B) doesn't say that "ANY upper limit would fix the situation", but rather "it would be good to set an upper limit".
If we're setting the limit with balancing the goals of giving people broad limits to spend their money and not enabling one candidate to vastly outspend his rivals, then we presumably would NOT set a crazy high upper limit that would undermine one of our goals.
With (E) There is a mutual assurance of fairness.I think that's too strong a guarantee. I agree that (E)'s rule is fair in the sense that everyone is allowed to spend as much as anyone else. But we want to achieve a situation in which "all voices have an equal chance to be heard" and vastly outspending rivals gives a candidate "an unfair advantage in publicizing their platforms".
So if (E) allows for one candidate to vastly outspend another, which it does, then it is facilitating an UNFAIR situation as described in the stimulus.
In the Bill Gates example above, it's being implied that the wealthier candidate would set the limit for spending. I'm not sure where you got the idea that Gates was setting any limit.
We were saying that Gates has the
capacity to spend 2 billion, while no other candidate could come close.
With (E)'s rule, all other candidates would be ALLOWED to spend 2 billion (or more), but that doesn't mean they could.
With (B)'s rule, if there is an upper limit that is lower than 2 billion, then that brings Gates's campaign spending closer to everyone else's.
However (E) says that the candidate can spend as much as any other candidate chooses to spend, meaning that the less wealthy person would set the limit.I'm not sure how you're reading that as "the less wealthy person sets the limit". With (E), there is no limit. I think you're interpreting (E) to mean that "each candidate should
only be allowed to spend as much money as any other candidate".
So if one candidate only spends $100, then all other candidates are forced to only spend $100.
That's not what (E) is saying, though.
If one candidate only spends $100, then all other candidates should be allowed to spend $100. That language doesn't rule out the possibility of spending more.
The problem with reading (E) as your interpretation is that the campaign budget for EVERYONE would be set by the 1st person who is done spending.
But (E) is describing something more dynamic and interactive than that. It's saying, "If Bob spends another $5 million on his campaign, then the other candidates should be allowed to spend another $5 million on THEIR campaigns." It's a rule that would make the allowable limit for campaign spending to rise indefinitely, because as soon as "any other candidate chooses to spend" more than the current maximum, then all other candidates should be allowed to spend as much as that new maximum.
Hope this helps.