Mab6q Wrote:I have serious reservations about this problem, but that's the LSAT for you. I tried my best to focus on the flaw that is represented by the stimulus, and it appears to be some kind of correlation causation flaw. Both D and E both represent this.
At first, I thought E was incorrect because of the word "develop". I thought this was giving us some causal affect that was different than more likely, and you could still make an argument for that in E. However, E does still make a correlation flaw because there could be some third factor that causes children to develop a greater interest in reading and have parents who read to them. D clearly has a causation flaw as well.
Sine the flaws were similar, I did my best to try and find discernible differences. I noticed that unlike E and the stimulus, D does not give us a study that established our premise. So this was my main motivation for eliminating D. Looking back now, I think the argument for the term shift is credible, but I wanted to see what you guys thought about the lack of including a study in D. Is that irrelevant here because D's premise serves the same function as our original?
thanks.
I think that leaving the stimulus with the correlation causation flaw in mind is great and the best that can be expected in this case.
For me this type of questions (match the flaw) is the toughest and most time consuming. You aren't alone.
The term shifts in E are the best reasons to eliminate it. They add flaws that aren't present in the stimulus. I'm not sure about this, but it might be true that the gaps in the terms are such that the argument in E doesn't get to have correlation-causation flaw at all. You have to assume other stuff to get there.
As you said, the studies in the stimulus and the premise in D are quite the same. In fact, they ARE the same, since by writing that the studies have "SHOWN" some facts, the author accepts these as true facts.
BTW, I didn't read every post here, so I might have missed someone speaking about it, but I wanted to note that C might actually be a valid argument. The conclusion is very weak, concluding on the basis of a correlation that there is a POSSIBILITY of a causation relationship. Seems fair to me.