dukeag Wrote:mattsherman Wrote:That is exactly why answer choice (E) can be eliminated. You cannot take the contrapositive of a "some" statement nor a "most" statement.
Frustrating I know, because so many of the answer choices are very close, but it's really important that we do not commit reversals, negations, or incorrectly taken contrapositives!
Does that clear things up on this one?
Why are we not allowed to take the contrapositive of "some" or "most" statements?
Great question,
dukeag!
The only reason we are allowed to make contrapositives of conditional statements is because they
logically equivalent statements. They mean the EXACT same thing! When I state a rule:
If I eat pizza, then I get sick.
That also means that if I DON't get sick, then I must NOT have eaten pizza....because if I *had* eaten pizza, I would have gotten sick!
The rule and its contrapositive are logically identical.
If you
tried to take the contrapositive of a most statement, the odd statement you'd end up creating would NOT be logically identical.
Consider the (factually correct) statement:
Most drivers are women.If we attempted to created a contrapositive of that, it might look something like this:
Most men are not drivers.And that's ridiculous!
Or consider a class where there are 20 students, 10 boys and 10 girls. 8 of the boys got As, while 9 of the girls got As. It would be correct to say that most of the As were girls, but what might seem to be the 'contrapositive' ("most of the boys got non-As") would clearly be wrong.
On a fundamental level, taking the contrapositive of a conditional only works
because that conditional is a guarantee of some outcome. As a result, taking that outcome away will also tell us something, since it was promised in certain situations. Statements about 'most', on the other hand, don't guarantee anything at all - they just give us a squishy likelihood. Taking away the 'likely' result, then, doesn't actually tell us anything.
WaltGrace1983 Wrote:mattsherman Wrote:None of the answer choices gives us a conditional relationship that bridges the gap. However we do get a likelihood. Each of the answer choices says "MOST" except for answer choice (C). Answer choice (C) undermines the argument so we can eliminate this one right away. Bridging the gap with a "MOST" statement is answer choice (A). Answer choice (E) would be similar to a contrapositive of a "MOST" statement - which is not permitted.
I totally understand why (A) is the BEST answer, which is why I picked it. However, wouldn't (C) be classified as the all-too-famous (absence of a cause) → (absence of an effect) strengthener?
If we have (oppose) → ~(pass) as the argument and (C) gives us ~(oppose) → (pass), wouldn't this actually strengthen the argument in a very LSAT-like way?
Bah! I've always thought those tidy shortcuts of 'absence of cause, absence of effect' strengtheners were dangerous thought patterns, and this is exactly why.
Let me lay out a few examples that should illustrate the point.
PREMISE: Bees are dying in California
CONCLUSION: It must be because of pollution.
Here, it would totally strengthen this argument to say "In Utopia, there's zero pollution and the bees aren't dying." Absence of proposed cause, absence of observed effect.
PREMISE: Bees are dying in California. California has lots of pollution
CONCLUSION: It must be because of pollution.
Here, again, it would totally strengthen this argument to say "In Utopia, there's zero pollution and the bees aren't dying." Absence of observed cause, absence of observed effect.
PREMISE: There's lots of pollution in California
CONCLUSION: Bees must be dying there.
Now, it has
absolutely zero impact on the argument to say that "In Utopia, there's zero pollution and the bees aren't dying." Absence of observed cause, absence of proposed effect
means nothing. Why? Because, while this argument is about cause/effect, saying that we KNOW we have the cause element, and we are PREDICTING some effect in the future. It's not suggesting it's the
only possible cause for that effect, so removing the cause in Utopia doesn't mean much to us.
The first two examples started from a known effect, and sought an explanation. The only way to conclude definitively that the effect *was* caused by a particular cause is to assume that
no other cause could have done it. As a result, it's useful information to see what happens when we take the
supposedly sole cause away.
If we want to be formal about it, when we know the cause only, the conditional relationship is:
Just like a bad contrapositive, finding out what happens when we negate the cause isn't useful.
However, when we know the effect has happened, and we look for a cause, the conditional relationship is:
And the contrapositive of that is:
If NO [cause] --> NO [effect] And that's exactly where the 'absence of cause, absence of effect' shortcut came from.
Moral of the story Causal relationships must be handled with care, and they function a bit differently depending on whether we know the cause or the effect
actually occurred.