by aznriceboi17 Tue Feb 25, 2014 11:50 pm
I was thinking the same thing as deedubbew and wanted to know what others thought.
To me, it seems that there are 2 ways to reconcile Jane and Mark's premises.
One way is to argue that the lack of a widely accepted standard does NOT imply that there is no OBJECTIVE standard. It could simply mean that we haven't discovered what it is. Jane's argument only handles the case where there is no objective standard; Mark's argument covers the case where there is.
A second way is to avoid dealing with objective standards, and note that even if different standards are very different for almost all of the population, they can still agree on a single element (in which case it would be widely accepted that that element was good).
To be concrete, suppose we evaluate a population of 100 members by giving them a letter grade in A, B, C, D, F.
Suppose evaluation standard X gives 's F's to 99 elements, and an A to one element. At the same time, evaluation standard Y gives D's to 99 elements, and an A to the same lone element that got an A under X. Finally, evaluation standard Z gives C's to 99 elements, and an A to the same element who got an A under X and Y.
X, Y, Z are all widely different standards. And suppose we humans are evenly split among the 3 in our personal opinions. Even though there is clearly no widely accepted standard, we can all agree that that element that got an A under X, Y, Z is good.
In this second way of reconciling the two arguments, Jane's argument covers the case where there isn't an element that most people agree is good. Mark's argument fills in the gap for those scenarios where there is a widely acclaimed element, despite all the standards being for the most part very different.
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The credited response, E, did seem attractive to me since there was a simpler argument that presented itself in support of it. However, I thought it was simpler only because it glossed over the details and concluded that Jane and Mark's premises were in conflict.