Q20 - Anthropological studies indicate that distinct culture

[shirando21]

How come I picked D instead of B?

Can anyone please analyze this question?

Thanks a lot.

[timmydoeslsat]

(B) will not weaken the argument. The conclusion is that as long as there are distinct cultures, there are no values shared amonst these cultures.

(B) is telling us that we will eventually have ~distinct cultures. That does not weaken our argument about we happens when we do in fact have distinct cultures.

(D) helps to weaken. It shows that there may be similarities out there, but these researchers were biased to find the differences instead.

With there being one piece of evidence and a conclusion, it is not surprising that we are attacking the integrity of the evidence.

[cnguye15]

The assumption here is that if moral values between cultures are different then all other kind of values are different.
C directly attack this assumption, while A, E, D seem to undermine the premise "distinct culture differs in their moral codes."
A argues that maybe part of their methodology ( translation tech) is flawed, leading them to reach an inaccurate result-- the premise.
D questions the anthropologists' objectivity which could negatively affects their findings.
E weakens the premise by asserting that maybe the values per se are not different, but the beliefs as to how to conform them differ. Thus, the anthropologist might have only looked into those beliefs instead of the values themselves.
By POE, we are left with B.
Please let me know if this reasoning is correct. Thanks.

[513852276]

In stimulus, it says "M (distinct culture) has N (differs in moral code). thus, as long as M, there is K (no value shared across culture)."

The conditional conclusion exclude (M, not K) combination, and the assumption must be "if N, not K".

Answer choice A D E weakens by giving possibilities of (M, not K). Answer choice C gives (M, not N), hence, we could not deduct "M, then K" based on assumption anymore. However, answer choice B gives a (not M, not N) combination, which is compatible with the conclusion.

[WaltGrace1983]

Anthropological studies say distinct cultures = different moral codes
-->
As long as there are distinct cultures, there are no values shared across cultures.

This argument is supposing that, because anthropological studies say that distinct cultures have different moral codes, that no values are shared. However, are different moral codes akin to different values shared? Why do these anthropological studies have any authority anyway? These are questions I am asking.

(A) Weak weakener. This shows that the anthropological studies may not have much authority and thus we shouldn't base a conclusion on them if the translations are "inadequate."

(B) This one is very tricky. The italicized portion of the argument ends up being the most important point for unlocking this. We only care about when cultures are "distinct." Thus, because (B) is talking about a time in which we will all "share the same culture," this doesn't end up hurting or helping the argument.

(C) Weaken. This is saying that there are "general moral principles" that are common to ALL cultures. Thus, the idea that there are not values shared across cultures is defunct.

(D) Like (A), this one focuses on the inadequacy of the anthropological studies, calling the argument into question.

(E) This, like (A) and (D), also focuses on the disconnection between appearance (like the anthropological studies) and reality. This says that some distinct cultures have the same values, though they appear different.