ohthatpatrick Wrote:Let's say cheating on a test resulted in my feeling guilty.
So the 'result' is guilt. This answer choice is saying that the author thought that this result, 'guilt', was sufficient for bringing about that result.
Say what?
'Guilt' was sufficient for bringing about 'guilt'?
That's what (A) is saying.
The argument would have to sound something like this:
Patrick cheated on a test and that's why now he feels guilty. Clearly, feeling guilty ensures that one feels guilty.
Sometimes LSAT just likes to load up an answer choice with fancy sounding words, even if the idea doesn't make any sense (i.e. it would never be an actual flaw they would write). I think (A) falls into this category.
I am a little confused by this. I don't see how (A) is analogous to the situation you just described. I would see it like this:
Cheating on the test --> guilt
"Guilt" is the result. "Cheating on the test" is the sufficient." Thus, isn't (A) trying to say that the argument confuses "guilt" (the result) with "cheating on the test" (something sufficient). In other words, I guess the author says that "cheating on the test" = guilt.
So let's say I said the following: "I have guilt." The author is confusing this "guilt" with "cheating on the test." Thus the author takes these two terms as synonymous. "I have guilt" is the exact same thing as "I have cheated on the test."
Is the correct way of thinking?
Wouldn't (A) be wrong, for one reason, because (A) is talking about a causal relationship and there is nothing causal about this argument? All this argument is saying is that "some people who are wealthy are criminals" and thus "no wealthy person should be appointed." It may be implying that being wealthy --> not having good ethics but the argument itself is not that causal. What do you guys and girls think?