Q17.
This one I thought had to be B - I've seen this type of question before, in which someone claims that something caused something else when there could be some broader alternative explanation that caused both things. In this case, the legislator claims that areas in which the new law is being implemented has reduced the crime rate. The analyst, however, says that in areas where the law is not being implemented, crime has dropped in the same way.
Answer B seems to work because they could both be the effect of a better economy, or some other factor. If it is the case that the reduction of the crime rate is due to another factor, then the law hasn't reduced the crime rate, thus weakening the argument.
I don't understand how it's E - why does it matter that the legislator hasn't considered the effect in the absence of the cause? The legislator is simply arguing that the law has reduced crime in an area, irrespective of how the absence of the law affects crime in other areas.
Thanks!
-Ravi