This is a procedure question. We’re looking to identify the reasoning that underlies the recommended pricing strategy.
So what is that pricing strategy? The stimulus recommends that sellers aim
too high when setting the initial price of an exclusive product. Aiming
too low would tarnish the product’s exclusive appeal, and therefore lower the product’s value in the eyes of customers.
In practice, this means that Christian Dior should price new scarves at $500 rather than $20. Customers may not want to plunk down $500 for a scarf, but they will desire the the scarf because its price makes it appear exclusive. The $20 scarf, on the other hand, seems common. Customers who buy Dior for its high-class brand won’t want the $20 scarf.
Essentially, the stimulus recommends aiming high because the alternative (aiming low) has negative consequences.
(A) matches this idea.
tz_strawberry Wrote: But then not sure how (A) would be inferred from the stimulus...
Isn't the counterproductive feature of setting too low price "calling into question the very thing-exclusivity"? So it does not lack it I thought...
Exactly! You have perfectly articulated the "counterproductive feature" of setting the price too low. But aiming low is the
rejected alternative to the recommended strategy of aiming high. Aiming high lacks this counterproductive feature.
(B) talks about "advantages of the rejected alternative." But no advantages of aiming low were ever outlined.
(C) is out of scope and unsupported. No "experience" is discussed, and analysis is indeed offered in support of aiming high.
(D) is contradicted. The strategy of aiming high relies heavily on prospective buyers’ estimates of value. The seller is able to set a high price because the
buyer believes the product to be exclusive, i.e. valuable.
(E) is unsupported. Dior doesn’t price scarves at $500 because no one will notice that the scarves are overpriced.
Hope this helps!