So the monopoly power is the ability of a firm to raise prices, and antitrust laws do not prohibit this power. But does this means "it does not necessarily hurt consumer welfare"?
Does it say this just because it does not go against antitrust laws (L9)? But in L42 it says antitrust laws can also impair customers' welfare isn't it...?? So I thought even it does not go against it, it can hurt them...or is this the reason it says not necessarily?
And abuse of monopoly power hurt customers' welfare, because it excludes competition in the markets, right?
It can raise price without losing their customer so they can raise it as much as they want when they have large share in the market and this is "associated with a loss of consumers' welfare" (though supracompetitive prices may be just an example of the exclusion?) meaning it justifies E's latter part.
The things I'm not sure are...how it can force some cunsumers to buy a less alternative goods, and whether making consumer buy less alternative goods means "exclude competition" (I thought "some consumer" is not enough...and even it leads consumer to buy less, they still can...can't they??).
Or is it because the price is constrained by the availability of alternatives and the fact they can increase prices means they do not have rivals that much=they share large % of the market? But how do we know they used power to increased the share? And even they can raise prices, that does not mean there are no alternatives right...??
Thank you