The correct answer(E) says "explicitly" and I thought Galen, Pliny and other ancient writers quote opinions of male and female doctors "indiscriminately" so how can they be "explicit"?
I interpreted as they don't discriminate so they don't explicitly refer opinions of either gender....
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Atticus Finch
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Re: Q15
Indiscriminately does not mean NOT explicitly. It just means that those authors were not prejudiced against female doctors. It is meant to imply that those ancient writers did not see anything special about female medical doctors.
In lines 47-50 the passage states that the works of the ancient writers mentioned in lines 51-52 did refer explicitly to the works of women. So answer choice (E) is supported by the passage.
Incorrect Answers
(A) is unsupported by the passage, and while probably true in the real word, was not mentioned in the passage.
(B) is unsupported by the passage, though it does distinguish between midwives and medical doctors, but does not exclude either field from women.
(C) is unsupported, though Francesca de Romana was the first recorded instance of licensure to a woman in the field of medicine.
(D) is unsupported. We know that there were medical doctors who were trained in Greece and Rome but not to what extent.
In lines 47-50 the passage states that the works of the ancient writers mentioned in lines 51-52 did refer explicitly to the works of women. So answer choice (E) is supported by the passage.
Incorrect Answers
(A) is unsupported by the passage, and while probably true in the real word, was not mentioned in the passage.
(B) is unsupported by the passage, though it does distinguish between midwives and medical doctors, but does not exclude either field from women.
(C) is unsupported, though Francesca de Romana was the first recorded instance of licensure to a woman in the field of medicine.
(D) is unsupported. We know that there were medical doctors who were trained in Greece and Rome but not to what extent.
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Vinny Gambini
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Re: Q15
I understand why the other answers are wrong but I'm still having some difficulty seeing how these ancient writers refer to women doctors explicitly in their writing. I erroneously picked (B) because I assumed that it was referring to midwifery and extended the idea that female doctors weren't limited to practicing it to assume that they never practiced it, but if I knock out (B) it is hard for me to identify (E) as the clear choice.
The main evidence that I feel contradicts the idea of an explicit reference is: "these works usually simply give excerpts from the female authority's writing without biographical information..." (Lines 56-58). It seems to me like the language of the entire fourth paragraph (and particularly the simply and the "without biographical information") suggests that these writers merely took the advice directly from male or female writings without any particular indication as to who had written it, thereby also omitting biographical information that could identify the writer as a female.
Any pointers would be appreciated, thanks!
The main evidence that I feel contradicts the idea of an explicit reference is: "these works usually simply give excerpts from the female authority's writing without biographical information..." (Lines 56-58). It seems to me like the language of the entire fourth paragraph (and particularly the simply and the "without biographical information") suggests that these writers merely took the advice directly from male or female writings without any particular indication as to who had written it, thereby also omitting biographical information that could identify the writer as a female.
Any pointers would be appreciated, thanks!
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