andrea.devas Wrote:Hi,
I had it down to (B) and (C) and ultimately picked (B) because of the word "anti social". I understand why (C) works but I also don't see how (B) explains the statistical relationship between watching violent TV and more prone to be disciplined at school. Thanks!
Hey, there.
The one thing you said that concerned me a bit was "I understand why (C) works". Since this is an EXCEPT question, (C) is the correct answer because it DOESN'T work -- in this case, it DOESN'T explain the statistical relationship.
We need to explain the apparent correlation between kids who
i. watch more violent TV (as rated by their parents)
ii. have more discipline problems
A) explains this by connecting the violence the kids watch to bad behavior -- "expressing boredom in an unacceptable fashion"
B) explains this by connecting watching violent programs with bad behavior --- "regarding antisocial behavior as legitimate"
D) explains this by connecting watching violent programs with bad behavior --- "disrespecting society's prohibitions of violence / disrepecting school disciplinary codes"
E) explains this by connecting NOT being allowed to watch violent programs with NOT being allowed to behave badly -- "careful about other aspects of their children's behavior".
In all four cases, we have to judge whether the phrase I put in quotes is linked by common sense to children being more likely / less likely to be disciplined.
Your hesitation with (B) was the phrase 'antisocial behavior'. If a kid thinks antisocial behavior is legitimate, it's reasonable that he will behave antisocially. Is 'behaving antisocially' related to 'being disciplined'? Yes, the test would argue.
You might be thinking of the word 'antisocial' too strictly in terms of the sense in which we sometimes hear it -- someone who is introverted, shy.
But that's really a distortion of what 'antisocial' means. It really means "against society".
So it's pretty equivalent to the idea of expressing oneself "in an unacceptable fashion" in (A).
(C) is the odd man out because it doesn't offer any link between the violence that kids did/didn't watch and their resulting behavior.
In fact, (C) makes it seem like ALL the kids watched violent TV. (C) is saying that the kids who supposedly weren't watching violent TV really were watching violent shows. It's just that their parents, who are desensitized to violence, rated the shows as less violent than the shows really are.
So (C) would actually remove the existence of a statistical relationship by implying that everyone in this study was really watching violent TV.
Hope this helps. Let me know if you have further questions.