This was a fairly easy question, but I thought it had a strange format, probably due to the fact that's so old.
Conclusion: there's not question that the policy of nuclear deterrence has worked thus far.
I saw two main pieces of evidence here
Support 1: the fact that there were nuclear armaments has kept major powers from using nuclear weapons
Support 2: a third world war had not happened yet.
Flaw: the main issue with this problem is that the author mistakes a correlation for causation.
Just because we have a policy of deterrence and have yet to have a world war, it dosent mean that the deterrence caused the lack of war. That's why E is right - it tells us that we don't know the true cause of no new world war.
However, i have a question about the first premise. Dosen't it essentially tell us that it is nuclear armaments that have prevented the use of such weapons? And because it is a premise, we have to take it to be true?
Is it still flawed because the author uses lack of a world war to prove his conclusion, and we don't know that it's the deterrence (first premise) that has caused a lack of a new world war?
Any thoughts?