lissethbayona Wrote:I still don’t fully understand this question. I suspected that the fact that the study was limited to 10,000 accidents was problematic. Like bbirdwell said, only 1 of those 10,000 accidents could have involved a small car. If that small car driver were injured, then using the resulting data, “100% of those driving small cars are injured” to conclude “small car drivers are more likely to be injured in accidents than drivers of large cars” would be inaccurate to say.
So my question is would this issue be solved if we were told that the group of 10,000 accidents was randomly selected from all accidents? Or would the only way to solve this issue be to have full information of all accidents that involve large and small cars?
This lead to me realize that I don’t understand why (D) would weaken the argument. Lets say large cars are involved in more accidents than small cars. Why would that weaken the conclusion?
I came up with this example:
OF ALL ACCIDENTS --
Large cars: 1000 accidents | 100 injured →10% of large car drivers injured
Small cars: 50 accidents | 25 injured →50% of small car drivers injured
Conclusion: “Thus, large car drivers are less likely to be injured in automobile accidents than small car drivers.”
This makes sense to me! LOL --Okay small cars get in much fewer accidents than large cars but when they do 50% of drivers are injured! I don’t understand what's wrong here. I’m definitely taking “more likely/less likely” to mean frequency/percentage. Is that thinking correct?
Any help would be greatly appreciated!
Let me take a stab at this... This question was very tricky and most of all, it taught me something about the LSAC I keep on getting reminded but don't always remember: The same flaws on this exams keep recurring, but they have very nifty ways of describing them.
Let's make a simpler version of this argument: (I used to play soccer and I'm a huge Arsenal fan

)
Over the 2014-15 Champions League season (35 games)
A higher percentage of English players in the CL scored goals that did Belorussian players in the CL
Therefore, English players are more likely to score goals in the Champions League than Belorussian players.
Now, any soccer fan worth their salt would see numerous things wrong here (and note that the LSAC knows this, that why they made the arguments concerning accidents / more abstract matters/everyday matters - something that I'm sure they have research on that people will drag their assumptions into subconsciously )
The biggest thing here is that, it's well known in the soccer world that Belorussian teams RARELY, if ever make it to the Champions League - and if they do, the maximum amount of teams they can have is - 1! ( It usually alters between BATE Borisov or Dinamo Minsk..but that's irrelevant

) On the contrary, England is guaranteed at least 3 teams in the Group stages, but is allowed 4 (and with the Fair play rule coming up for the next season of the CL, 5 - but again, that's irrelevant ...

)
Now, I'm sure by now you see what's wrong with this argument. It's a faulty comparison! if there are 4 English teams in the CL, you would expect more English players to score goals than one Belorussian team full of Belorussian players would. Now however, you need to have a clear picture of the data to make that comparison - (which is what Brain is alluding to by his calculation that he doesn't know (It's a concept called expected probability, but you don't really need to know it) - Basically you need more information on the information of the competition- In particular, you need EQUAL CIRCUMSTANCES between the two. This is the flaw here.
Now, her's whats so crazy about this problem - While I specifically went into the flaw of faulty comparison - We have been taught to doubt the relevance/methodology of all studies on the LSAT. So the flaw could also be described as - "The study is not relevant to the conclusion surmised" Notice my conslusion - I talk about the 2014-15 CL, but then I generalize to all Champions Leagues!!!! - This is WRONG. And if we were given a flaw question that was "easy" - i wouldn't be surprised to see that flaw there. But it's not easy - and it doesn't matter. We have reason to doubt that the study of the 14-15 CL is not relevant to all CL's - and so we should look for the answer that DIRECTLY hits on this ( that why A & C are so tricky- they allude to something being done in the study - but they dont hit on WHAT is being done)
Hopefully this helps most people out.