by ohthatpatrick Fri Nov 24, 2017 8:09 pm
Lines 16-19 say that the income gap only became large enough in 1915, to start the Great Migration.
Lines 7-8 say that the catalysts for the Great Migration were
- More labor demand in North (because WWI needed northern industries to make stuff)
- Less labor supply in North (because no more immigrants coming looking for jobs
- Less labor demand in South (because crops had been ruined from an infestation)
Pull those together, and you can add up the idea that typical supply/demand dynamics would drive wages up in North and down in the South.
(A) we can’t compare the extreme highs in the South to the extreme lows of the North. All we know is that, overall, there was more economic prosperity to be found in the North, nothing about individual jobs.
(B) this seems more opposed than supported. It is argued by the author that the Great Migration continued as long as it did because the costs of migrating were lower for the LATER migrants.
(D) can we support the extreme modifier “dramatically” or “for ALL workers”?
(E) can we support the strong/specific idea that more than 50% of migrants made at least one trip back?