Can one of the experts weigh in on confirming my analysis for why I missed this one?
---------
I interpreted (C) as saying something to the effect of 'the retributionist rationale (RR) justifies punishments in a larger variety of cases then the social-benefit rationale (SR)'.
I concluded from lines 17-21 that the question was hinting at the fact that the RR justifies punishments even in cases where this is not a social benefit, unlike the the SR. Hence, it justifies more "kinds" of punishments.
I now see that (B) correctly is referencing the discussion of the potential unfairness of the SR in relation to disproportionate punishments, a fault that the RR lacks/remedies. Hence, I see the support for this as the credited answer.
--------
My question is, in what way did I misinterpret (C)? I see two possibilities:
1. "Kinds" is meant to be read as 'forms or varieties of punishment' (e.g; whipping, drowning, forced attendance at Bieber concerts...). Obviously, in this reading, there is no supported difference between each given theory in the forms of punishment it justifies (unsupported/unaddressed).
2. "Kinds" is indeed meant to be read the way I presented it initially, as 'number of applicable cases for punishment'; but this is actually an unsupported comparison---because (perhaps) it is unclear which theory casts a wider net on punishable events. Perhaps there are more cases which could be justified for punishment with a social benefit claim than a retributionist claim, and vice versa.
---------
Any experts have thoughts on this? I am inclined to think that interpretation 1 is correct, and I just misread the intention of "kinds". But I would love a second opinion.