stm_512 Wrote:This question is driving me to the point of insanity, especially reading all the responses that still havn't solved my confusion.
If the question asks what undermines the conclusion. The conclusion is clearly, "speakers of languages that have fewer basic words for colors than English has must be perceptually unable to distinguish as many colors as speakers of English can distinguish.
In order to undermine this conclusion, we should look for an answer choice that strictly satisfies the sufficient condition but invalidates the necessary assumption.
I just can't see how A) satisfies the sufficient condition. How can English speakers have fewer basic words for colors than English has? It doesn't make any sense to me.
I understand how A) make sense if you twist the conclusion of the stimulus, but the conclusion of the stimulus is very specific with its sufficient condition.
I am probably confused on what you are saying here so, if I am, I apologize. However, when we weaken the argument (or really do anything with
assumption family questions) we want to show that there is a gap between the
premise (which I guess you could call a "sufficient condition" but I necessarily would not) and the
conclusion. In other words, you want to say, "Yes author, I see your point! However, your premises don't really lead to the conclusion because ________". When we weaken, we show why the premises,
while true, don't necessarily lead to the conclusion because the author forgot to take something into account. It looks like you know this but I was just getting a little bit confused on what exactly you meant by the bolded so I thought I'd clarify for my own sake. Here is the conclusion:
"Speakers of languages that have fewer basic words for colors than English has must be perceptually unable to distinguish as many colors as speakers of English can distinguish."
The underlined portion is the "who." We are talking about "speakers with fewer basic words for colors." What is the author say happens with them? Well, because
they have fewer basic words for colors they
cannot distinguish as many colors.
There is a big assumption here and when you see it you will smack yourself in the face! Think about this assumption before scrolling down.
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Ok got it?
If not, well...who is to say that the
number of words has anything to do with
perception? I'll give you an example. I studied abroad in Italy. What we
call "blue" is very different from what Italians call "blu." In Italy, "blu" is navy blue - very dark. In America, "blue" is lighter - like the sky. The "blue" that we know is called "celeste" in the Italian language. Thus, Italians have two different words for "blue:" these are "celeste" and "blu." Can they distinguish more shades of blue than we can? Absolutely not.
They just call it different things.
They have more words for the same stuff we distinguish. People would think you were mad if you corrected people on the use of "blue."
So (A) is saying that English speakers (thus people who use the English language)
are able to distinguish between lighter and darker shades of a color they call "blue." See my example above.
Yet, Russians
have two different basic words for the same thing that English speakers can distinguish. See my example above.
Do you see it now? Let me know if not! I like this question.