I got this question wrong at first. I was stuck between b and c.
The last sentence is the conclusion and it states :
"Therefore, philosophical thought is unique to humans."
I understood that as saying only humans (H) have philosophical thought (PT).
I just want to know is it safe to phrase it this way. Outside of the LSAT this may or may not be true, but from what is stated in the stimulus, I understood it as that.
From there I looked at the evidence:
No ape (~H) has ever used its human language skills to ask such philosophical questions. (APQ)
Humans = H
Philosophical thought = PT
Ask philosophical questions = APQ
So conclusion: PT-> H
Evidence: ~H-> ~APQ
I got this from Ape not being able to ask. I feel I can safely assume from the stimulus that an ape is not a human,
If you take the contrapositive of the conclusion: ~H-> ~PT
~H-> ~APQ-> ~PT the assumption lies in ~APQ-> ~PT
or PT-> APQ which is what choice C states APQ can be swapped for the word expressed.
I believe choice B is wrong bc the assumption is about expressing human language. Even if you negate choice B it does not let you know anything about the expression of human language even if they can still "think" in human language.
If anyone could clarify If what I wrote is correct or needs some tuning it would really be much appreciated.