Q10

[tzyc]

I thought Latin American poetry does not have long-standing past to romantic because they invent day by day...so "no long standing past" is result. But B says because it does not have longstanding past, they invent day by day...why it's the opposite direction? How to know it's not the relationship I thought?
By the way, both Latin American poetry and Spanish poetry belong to "Spanish language culture" right?

Thank you

[ManhattanPrepLSAT1]

Hey tz_strawberry, good question!

Notice that the passage states that Latin American poetry has no long-standing past to romanticize because they have no long-standing culture (pre-Columbian) and that Latin American culture is invented day-by-day. This means that they're poetry is a product of their experience--as suggested in answer choice (B). you were correct to focus on the word "because," but mixed up the terms "long-standing past" and "poetry romanticizing a long-standing past." The former is the experience, the latter is the product of that experience in poetry.

Incorrect Answers
(A) assigns the wrong purpose to the acceptance of new poetical structures--this is not an attempt to create a cultural past.
(C) switches the cause and effect. It's not the poetry that causes a reflection of the past, but rather the reflection of the past (or lack there of) that causes the poetry.
(D) contradicts the passage. The example of Pablo Neruda was an example of a poetic structure influenced by other world cultures.
(E) is unsupported. Countries that display cultural conservatism may not borrow other world cultures, but Latin America may indeed borrow from cultures that do display cultural conservatism.

[tzyc]

Hi Matt, thank you for the reply!
Um, actually I have another question...so both Latin American poetry and Spanish poetry belong to "Spanish language culture" right? I'm sorry if you already answered for the question but I did't see it so let me ask about it again...

Thank you