irini101
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Q1 - Moralist: TV talk shows are

by irini101 Mon Oct 17, 2011 6:04 pm

Does "contributing to" in the first sentence necessarily convey causality instead of correlation? During other preptest, I find that most of the time "contributing to" conveys correlation instead of causality. Therefore although D is obviously the only correct answer in this question, I think "causing" in D is not accurate, it should be "positively correlate to".

Please point out anything I have missed or misunderstand, thanks a lot!
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Re: Q1 - Moralist: TV talk shows are

by maryadkins Wed Oct 19, 2011 7:53 pm

irini101 Wrote:Does "contributing to" in the first sentence necessarily convey causality instead of correlation?


Yes! It doesn't have to mean that it's the only cause, but it definitely means it's contributing to it (i.e. a contributing cause of it). "Contributing to" does not convey only correlation.

Lesson: CONTRIBUTES TO = CAUSES TO SOME EXTENT. :)

Good luck!
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Re: Q1 - Moralist: TV talk shows are

by Mab6q Mon Jan 27, 2014 10:05 pm

why not C??
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Re: Q1 - Moralist: TV talk shows are

by mjacob0511 Thu Aug 07, 2014 9:54 am

Mab6q Wrote:why not C??


Hey I hope this is still helpful:

(A) The talk show host says "that would amount to censorship". Neither of them discuss whether TV should be censored or not.
(B) The moralist clearly feels that there has been a moral decline, but the talk show host doesn't address this. He just says "if there is such a decline...", so he may agree that there has been a moral decline as well - he just doesn't blame it on the talk shows.
(C) The moralist believes it causes a decline by influencing what the believe to be the norm, but the talk show host doesn't discuss this. He may believe that talk shows influence what's perceived to be the norm, but in a positive way.
(D) Clearly our answer. the moralist says they are causing the moral decline and the talk show host says "it's not because of the TV talk shows."
(E) The moralist doesn't discuss this at all, while the talk show host would seem to deem it censorship which is wrong.
 
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Re: Q1 - Moralist: TV talk shows are

by lsat2016 Tue Sep 29, 2015 7:27 pm

mjacob0511 Wrote:
Mab6q Wrote:why not C??


Hey I hope this is still helpful:

(A) The talk show host says "that would amount to censorship". Neither of them discuss whether TV should be censored or not.
(B) The moralist clearly feels that there has been a moral decline, but the talk show host doesn't address this. He just says "if there is such a decline...", so he may agree that there has been a moral decline as well - he just doesn't blame it on the talk shows.
(C) The moralist believes it causes a decline by influencing what the believe to be the norm, but the talk show host doesn't discuss this. He may believe that talk shows influence what's perceived to be the norm, but in a positive way.
(D) Clearly our answer. the moralist says they are causing the moral decline and the talk show host says "it's not because of the TV talk shows."
(E) The moralist doesn't discuss this at all, while the talk show host would seem to deem it censorship which is wrong.


I eliminated C since I thought the word "the norm" is too broad, when the stimulus is only talking about norms. Is that a valid reason to eliminate it?
Also, I didn't quite understand your explanation for answer C. You say that the talk show doesn't discuss it, but that he is perceiving the norm in a positive way. Since the moralist believes that the norm is being influenced in a negative way, wouldn't you say that that is a point they might disagree on?