Hi,
I recently bought the Manhattan LSAT Reading Comprehension Strategy Guide (2nd edition) and I came across something questionable on page 60.
This page says that from the statement “most people prefer brand X to brand Y” we can infer that
1. Most people do not prefer Brand Y
2. At least some people prefer brand Y to brand X
Is the second statement something that can be really inferred? I learned that most can mean more than half, or all. And so isn’t it possible that no one prefers brand Y to brand X?
This is very confusing to me because sometimes it seems to me like reading comprehension has a different standard of logic than logical reasoning…is this true? Please let me know. Thank you in advance