by dan Thu Nov 19, 2009 12:40 pm
Tough question. The short answer is no. This difference between (A) and (D) is not that one is an assumption and the other a flaw.
Before we discuss it in detail, a few things to keep in mind. Flaw questions are assumption questions in disguise. When they ask you to identify a flaw, they are essentially asking you to identify an assumption. Let's take a simple example.
John was late for class.
Therefore, we know that John got stuck in traffic.
Assumption language: John was not late for any other reason aside from traffic.
Flaw language (1): Presumes that John was not late for any other reason aside from traffic.
Flaw language (2): Takes for granted that John was not late for any other reason aside from traffic.
Flaw language (3): Fails to consider that something besides traffic could have caused John to be late.
Flaw language (4): Ignores/overlooks the possibility that something besides traffic could have caused John to be late.
Notice that all of these flaws are just different ways of getting at the assumption. So, you actually DON'T want to think of assumptions as inherently different from flaws. They are basically the same thing. The issue you're having with this particular question is actually something different. Let's break it down.
The argument is this:
correlation between good health and high levels of education
thus, good health is the result of making informed lifestyle decisions
For the sake of exercise, let's change the conclusion slightly to control for a separate issue we'll discuss later. For the moment, we’ll assume that making informed lifestyle decisions and being highly educated are equivalent concepts:
correlation between good health and high levels of education
thus, good health is the result of being highly educated
This argument has a correlation vs. cause issue. Just because two things are correlated doesn't mean that one necessarily results from the other. Here's the assumption/flaw language:
Assumption: There isn't a third factor that causes both high education levels and good health (eg, socioeconomic status).
Flaw language: Ignores/overlooks the possibility that a third factor may cause both high education levels and good health.
This is exactly what answer (D) says. So, one issue is this issue of cause vs. correlation.
Let's look at a second issue. Here's the original argument:
correlation between good health and high levels of education
thus, good health is the result of informed lifestyle decisions
This time let's change it slightly to eliminate the cause/correlation problem (we've already considered that):
good health is the result of high levels of education
thus, good health is the result of informed lifestyle decisions
In this case, there's an implicit connection made between high education levels and informed lifestyle decisions. We're assuming that highly educated people make informed lifestyle decisions. This is a flaw! If this were one of the answer choices, it would be a correct flaw. Answer (A) kind of gets at this assumption/flaw, but do we need to assume that ONLY highly educated people make informed lifestyle decisions? No. Maybe other kinds of people make informed decisions as well. Who cares as long as highly educated people do.
This is why (A) is wrong... NOT because it is an assumption instead of a flaw.
Make sense?
dan