No factors other than diet and heredity influence susceptibility to Blog’s disease, and diet has been shown to have a greater influence than heredity.
We can infer that...
A) Diet accounts for some or all susceptibility to Blog’s disease.
B) Heredity has some influence on susceptibility to Blog’s disease.
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Please break this down. I thought if diet is a greater influence than heredity, than heredity must have some influence. Therefore, B should be correct.
However, A is correct; and, I can understand A being correct. Why can B not be correct?
Thanks.