by tommywallach Sat Oct 06, 2012 8:41 pm
Hey Garima,
Well, first off, DO NOT DO IT THIS WAY. The 1-x trick is THE ONLY GOOD WAY to do this question. That being said, I'll explain why this method is bad news. Basically, you left out the possibility that you solved only for one combination. I'll explain by looking at your first example:
probability that exactly 2 people get the same number = 1 x (1/6) x (5/6) x (4/6) = 20/216
This is not the possibility of that happening. this is the possibility of, SPECIFICALLY, the first two being the same, and the second two being different. But that is not the only way that two people could get the same number. There are six ways:
1 and 2, 1 and 3, 1 and 4, 2 and 3, 2 and 4, and 3 and 4 = 6 ways
So we multiply the probability you found by 6:
20/216 * 6 = 120/216
That's the first possibility. To continue:
probability that exactly 3 people get the same number = 1 x (1/6) x (1/6) x (5/6) = 5/216
123 124 134 234 = 4 ways
5/216 * 4 = 20/216
probability that exactly 4 people get the same number = 1 x (1/6) x (1/6) x (1/6) = 1/216
only way
NOW, another thing you left out is the probability that two sets of two people will get the same things. That would also fit into the category of "at least 2 people get the same thing", so we need to solve for it:
Probability that 2 people get the same number and the other two people get the same number = 1 * 1/6 * 5/6 * 1/6 = 5/216
But just like the others, this can happen in multiple ways:
12 34
13 24
14 23
3 ways -->5/216 * 3 = 15/216
Add all those up and you'll get 156/216 = 13/18
PHEW! See why the 1-x trick is better! : )
-t