Why is the third choice true?
To me it doesn't seem like Sowell asserts that there are prerequisites for directing banks' lending activities, simply that there SHOULD be. It seems to me like he's suggesting that because there aren't such prerequisites in place, government officials who lacked relevant competencies were able to give instructions that had a negative impact.
I'm struggling to see how this interpretation is incorrect while the interpretation given by the book is correct.
Thank you!