Hi Experts,
Can you please verify where I am going wrong.Its a MGMAT question
If m <> 0, is m^3> m^2
1) m>0
2) m^2>m
my approach -
Since it is given that m^3 > m^2
and m^2 > 0 (always). So, it is safe to divide by m^2
Hence, the question becomes is m>1
1. Insufficient as m can lie b/w 0-1
2. Here I am going wrong.
Given - m^2>m
My take -
m^2-m > 0
m(m-1)>0
so, m>0 or m>1
So,m must be greater than 1.
But as per solution, It is incorrect. I know, this can be solved by plugging the values. However, I usually avoid them because I usually miss one or the other scenario. I would appreciate if someone can help me in catching the error.
Thanks