Usage of "None" as singular or plural

[Sharad Poddar]

So, shall I always consider "None" as singular in GMAT exam.
In the topic - http://www.manhattangmat.com/forums/san ... -t859.html , Dan and Stacey have emphasized to use "None" as singular in GMAT.

In the topic above - Dan says that the correct sentence is "until now, none of my friends has(not have) been able to crack the problem." and also gives us a link to read more on the usage of "none" - http://www.grammarmudge.cityslide.com/a ... 3/9903.htm

But,in the above link, the explanation for the usage of "none" is given as follows :-

"When the sense is plural (as indicated by a plural noun or pronoun in the following prepositional phrase - "none of [plural entity]"), none is plural; when the sense is singular (as indicated by a singular noun or pronoun in the following prepositional phrase - "none of [singular entity]"), none is singular."


So, according to this explanation, the correct sentence should be "until now, none of my friends[a plural entity] have (not has) been able to crack the problem."

I am a bit confused on the usage of "none".
Pardon me if I am posting my question in wrong forum/thread.

Please explain.

Regards,
Sharad Poddar

[StaceyKoprince]

This is exactly where you should post this question. :)

This is a confusing topic, and there's some disagreement about how to handle none. The GMAT generally prefers singular usage. See, for example, #17 in OG11. It uses a plural noun after none, but a singular verb match. So, on the GMAT, go for singular.

[Sharad Poddar]

Thanks Stacey.

[JonathanSchneider]

You bet!