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nycgirl212
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target _______ at

by nycgirl212 Thu Mar 07, 2013 4:59 pm

Are word allowed to separate an idiomatic expression? The expression in question is "target at"

This question relates specifically to #40 in the OG12. I know I am not allowed to post the question, but would it be possible for someone to explain exactly why the answer containing "targeted specifically at" is correct. I was always under the impression that a word CANNOT separate an idiomatic expression (target at).

Furthermore, is "target to" considered idiomatic?

Thank you
RonPurewal
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Re: target _______ at

by RonPurewal Sat Mar 09, 2013 10:00 pm

nycgirl212 Wrote:I was always under the impression that a word CANNOT separate an idiomatic expression (target at).


when it comes to this sort of thing, the easiest way to judge these "impressions" is to consider real-life examples.
in this case, if you think about a few such examples, you should fairly quickly arrive at the correct conclusion, which is that, sure, you can definitely put words between the parts of an idiom.
e.g.
i am listening to the music
i am listening intently to the music

etc.

also, there are plenty of idiomatic expressions that require words between the two parts of the idiom.
e.g., in the construction "between X and Y", X can't be void.

Furthermore, is "target to" considered idiomatic?


i wouldn't think so, no.
if the OG doesn't explicitly say that it is wrong, though, then the difference might just be in there as a distraction.

the good news here is that the modern GMAT isn't really testing these kinds of idioms anymore.
you may still have to find extremely common idioms (like "between x and y" vs. "between x or y") -- of the sort that everyone will know after modest exposure to the english language -- but not more obscure ones.
if you see a difference like this on your official exam, the first thing you should do is ignore it and look for other criteria.