Ron:
I will obey the forum rule strictly.
Sorry.
ayushrastogi82 wrote:I've learned one rule on the basis of which I marked off A, but now I'm very confused.
Rule: when "have/has/had" is an aulixiary verb, you do have a choice to repeat or not repeat the past participle, but you cannot change "have/has/had" to "do/does/did"
For example:
John has always eaten more meat than Paul has eaten.(correct)
John has always eaten more meat than Paul has. (correct)
John has always eaten more meat than Paul does. (incorrect)
A says: Since 1990 the global economy has grown more than it did during the 10,000 years from the beginning of agriculture to 1950
If OA is A, then it is voilating this rule.
The only difference I can point out between the rule and the choice A is that the above mentioned rule has 2 different subjects while choice A has only one subject.
Could any instructor clarify on the same?
read here:
http://www.beatthegmat.com/soar-t62473-15.html#280069
note that this sentence fits the third form given in that post -- "did" is a form of "to do", and "has grown" is a tense of the action verb "grow" (it's called the "present perfect tense", if you like to name these things)
notice that the reverse of this kind of structure would not be permissible; if you had just "has" as the second part of the parallel structure, then that's no longer the present perfect tense of an action verb, and so in that case you would also need a corresponding form of "have" in the first part.
notice that the reverse of this kind of structure would not be permissible; if you had just "has" as the second part of the parallel structure, then that's no longer the present perfect tense of an action verb, and so, in that case, you would also need a corresponding form of "have" in the first part.
JustinCKN Wrote:For example:
John has always eaten more meat than Paul has eaten.(correct)
John has always eaten more meat than Paul has. (correct)
John has always eaten more meat than Paul does. (incorrect)
JustinCKN Wrote:Notice that the reverse of this kind of structure would not be permissible; if you had just "has" as the second part of the parallel structure, then that's no longer the present perfect tense of an action verb, and so in that case you would also need a corresponding form of "have" in the first part.
I take this to mean an example like this:
1.John has always run more than Paul has run. (correct)
2.John has always run more than Paul has. (correct)
3. John runs more than Paul has run. (incorrect)
2. John has always eaten more meat than Paul does. (incorrect)
JustinCKN Wrote:
It's a helping verb. It implies "have ___ed", parallel to some verb on the other side.
I am now making more money than I ever have before.
this example departure from #.3 John runs more than Paul has run. (incorrect)
JustinCKN Wrote:I take this to mean an example like this:2. John has always eaten more meat than Paul does. (incorrect)
I think it should e correct.
i get the rule from another website
'if you use did/do/does to stand for an action verb, then it can be parallel to any tense of that action verb.
just like this question:
Since 1990 the global economy has grown more than it did during the 10,000 years from the beginning of agriculture to 1950.