Hi,
Thanks for your view on this.
Thanks,
Nitin
nitin.manoharan Wrote:Hi,
Thanks for your view on this.
Thanks,
Nitin
C is using the subjunctive construction intended for use in one type of situation: the desire of a person or entity for another person or entity to do something. That is not the intention of this sentence - it is not a desire on the part of DOL that officers be allowed to do something. Rather, DOL allowed the officers to do something.
dubinskysoares Wrote:C is using the subjunctive construction intended for use in one type of situation: the desire of a person or entity for another person or entity to do something. That is not the intention of this sentence - it is not a desire on the part of DOL that officers be allowed to do something. Rather, DOL allowed the officers to do something.
Stacy
I face a lot of problem choosing whether a particular construct requires subjunctive form.
In the case above, even though I found D better, but I chose C because it was subjunctive form and I could see a "permission"
Could you please explain when to choose subjunctive form
I generally just look at keywords such as "require, demand,order,hope" and jump to the form
RonPurewal Wrote:anoo.anand Wrote:Why is E wrong ??
* the present perfect is the ONLY tense that you're allowed to use in a clause modified by since...
i.e., because you have since 1986..., the main verb of the sentence must be in the present perfect.
(e) uses the past tense, so it's wrong.
sissizhx Wrote:RonPurewal Wrote:anoo.anand Wrote:Why is E wrong ??
* the present perfect is the ONLY tense that you're allowed to use in a clause modified by since...
i.e., because you have since 1986..., the main verb of the sentence must be in the present perfect.
(e) uses the past tense, so it's wrong.
Hello Ron,
I thought "begin" an instant verb (not sth. like "run"), could we use present perfect tense?
Thanks.
RonPurewal Wrote:anoo.anand Wrote:Why is E wrong ??
* it's unidiomatic to use "allow" with the subjunctive.
the correct usage is "allow NOUN to be ..."
it's incorrect to say "allow that NOUN be ..."
* the present perfect is the ONLY tense that you're allowed to use in a clause modified by since...
i.e., because you have since 1986..., the main verb of the sentence must be in the present perfect.
(e) uses the past tense, so it's wrong.
chembeti_aravind Wrote:Ron,
I agree with your point only in one occasion.
The word 'since' can be used to mean either of the following:
- to mark the beginning of a period
- to indicate a cause in a cause-and-effect situation.
Now I think, your explanation is applicable only to the first situation. Please correct me if I am wrong.
sidhant Wrote:Hi,
Can you please tell me whats wrong with option B?
thanks
Levent-g Wrote:Hi MGMAT-Team,
in answer choices C and D the pronoun THEY refers to a prepositional phrase of the noun phrase "fees of investment officers". Ron stated that if we can find a noun which fits it should be ok.
1) How about A, B and E. Why can't we just pick the same word there as technically it is included in the sentence. Does this rule doesn't apply for possessives?
2) In case an answer choice would contain only the noun investment officers without embedded in a prep. phrase and would not contain any other error, would this choice be better or would this not matter.