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rana_bhakat
 
 

SC from OG

by rana_bhakat Thu Feb 21, 2008 3:01 pm

[OG question deleted by Stacey. Please read the posting rules - it is illegal to post OG questions online.]

The OG answer is A but the answer shud be B.
This is why I think it should be B.

1) Is 'one of its main problems has been' is correct
OR 'one of its main problems have been' is correct? I
think the former should be correct because of one.

2) Recently extended slump : adverb + adjective +
noun should be correct? if not how do we know when it
will act as a phrase and when it will acr as
Adv+Adj+noun combination?

3) Why is this in past perfect? The slump is still on
and has started in the past. I believe it should be
present perfect.

If I am right on all the 3 points above the answer
should be B and not A. Please help.

Thanks,
Ranabir
StaceyKoprince
ManhattanGMAT Staff
 
Posts: 9363
Joined: Wed Oct 19, 2005 9:05 am
Location: Montreal
 

by StaceyKoprince Thu Feb 21, 2008 11:21 pm

Remember we can't host OG questions guys - sorry. You can search the closed OG threads to see if this question was already posted prior to the legal request from GMAC to stop posting OG questions. Other than that, we can't discuss these now. :(
Stacey Koprince
Instructor
Director, Content & Curriculum
ManhattanPrep