SC - Affording strategic proximity to the Strait of Gibralta

[eveH982]

Ron, i get a little bit confused after reading all your explanations. so can i conclude from your explanations my own comprehension on this question here?

#1. what the France assumed was not hypothetical, it was an actual case with certainty.

#2. two usages of "would": one is the past version of "will", the other is for hypothetical use, i.e, If I learned English, I would get good score on GMAT.

Here OA (without it their grip on Algeria would never be secure.
) applies to the first usage.

Do i make a right conclusion?

[RonPurewal]

well, you are correct about the thing you've labeled #2, and that's the thing that actually counts here.

(#1 isn't accurate, since, by definition, an "assumption" is something about which we are NOT certain -- it's something we're just assuming!)

[johncytseng]

Could Ron or anybody kindly help explain the difference of when to use "secure" vs. "secure"?

I am aware that this usage is not tested in this question, but I had such doubt when reading through this question.
Thanks very much!

[RonPurewal]

secure vs. secure? hm?

[RachitT407]

Affording strategic proximity to the Strait of Gibraltar, Morocco was also of interest to the French throughout the first half of the twentieth century because they assumed that if they did not hold it, their grip on Algeria was always insecure.

a) if they did not hold it, their grip on Algeria was always insecure
b) without it their grip on Algeria would never be secure
c) their grip on Algeria was not ever secure if they did not hold it
d) without that, they could never be secure about their grip on Algeria
e) never would their grip on Algeria be secure if they did not hold it.

Hello RON,

I understand that option B is correct and an official answer. I still do not completely understand the functioning of a pronoun 'it'.

As per my understanding "it" is a special case of pronouns since it is "it" in an object as well as in a subject form.

In option B - 'it' is an object pronoun since it comes after a preposition 'without'. As far as I know or have understood from your posts here on MGMAT forums or BTG, Object pronoun does not refer to subject (correct me if I am wrong). Then how and why this object pronoun 'it' is referring to Morocco which is the subject of the main clause? or is it referring to Strait of Gibraltar, which is in object form again? or am I missing something huge here?

Many Thanks,
Warm Regards,
RT

[RonPurewal]

i've never heard of the "rule" you're trying to use here, but, you are making this WAY more complicated than it has to be.

when you see a pronoun, ask yourself:
1/ Is the correct noun there?
2/ Does it match the pronoun (singular/plural)?

if the answers are "yes" and "yes", the pronoun is fine.

really, that's it.
here, "it" is clearly supposed to mean Morocco. "Morocco" is in the sentence, so, we're good.

remember—the GMAT is, by design, a test that (1) DOESN'T require tons and tons of studying, and (2) NEVER requires the memorization of arcane, nitpicky "rules".
if you invent a "rule" that would require tons of memorization about tiny little pointless details, then ... it's not actually a rule.

[ZoeZ42]

i've never heard of the "rule" you're trying to use here, but, you are making this WAY more complicated than it has to be.

when you see a pronoun, ask yourself:
1/ Is the correct noun there?
2/ Does it match the pronoun (singular/plural)?

if the answers are "yes" and "yes", the pronoun is fine.

really, that's it.
here, "it" is clearly supposed to mean Morocco. "Morocco" is in the sentence, so, we're good.

remember—the GMAT is, by design, a test that (1) DOESN'T require tons and tons of studying, and (2) NEVER requires the memorization of arcane, nitpicky "rules".
if you invent a "rule" that would require tons of memorization about tiny little pointless details, then ... it's not actually a rule.

Hi RON,
would you please clarify why 'it' in B is clearly stand for Morocco, i am afraid i need your further explanation.
I have no idea about the difference of "it" between B and A,C,E, it will be great appreciate if you answer.

waiting for your reply

have a nice day

>_~

[RonPurewal]

remember—another VERY important standard you can use, here, is this: a correctly written sentence should NEVER confuse you. you should ALWAYS be able to understand what it means IN ONE READING.

the correct answers on this exam are ALWAYS "good" writing—so, if there's an answer choice that is inherently confusing on the first reading, you can eliminate it even if the reasoning isn't rigorous.

for instance, look at choices C and E here.
in those choices, "it" is supposed to mean Morocco, but, on the first reading, that is not something that you'll pick up right away. (from the placement of those pronouns, you'd be more likely to think they refer to Tunisia.)

by contrast, in choices A and B, "it = Morocco" is obvious on a first reading (since the word "Tunisia" hasn't even appeared yet).

of course there are other issues with choices C and E, too -- but, yes, if a sentence confuses or misleads you the first time you read it, you can eliminate it.