The correct example in the MGMAT is: IT is futile to resist temptation.
IT refers to "to resist temptation"
I wonder that whether the following sentences are correct?
1. It is futile to resist temptation and to BLA BLA.
OR 2. They are futile to resist tempation and to BLA BLA.
Since the antecedent of pronouns here is to resist tempatation and to BLA BLA.
There are two things, right?
So, I am not sure which one is correct, and why.
Thanks in advance!
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- liu1993918
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- RonPurewal
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Re: Placeholder IT
you'd still use "it".
... and don't try to assign an antecedent to this type of "it". just recognize the very specific contexts in which it's allowable, and know that, in those contexts, it's ok.
if you try to assign an antecedent, there will be pernicious effects on your ability to judge ALL other pronouns (since NO other pronoun is allowed to stand for "to+verb").
... and don't try to assign an antecedent to this type of "it". just recognize the very specific contexts in which it's allowable, and know that, in those contexts, it's ok.
if you try to assign an antecedent, there will be pernicious effects on your ability to judge ALL other pronouns (since NO other pronoun is allowed to stand for "to+verb").
2 posts Page 1 of 1