manhhiep2509 Wrote:Hello.
In question 82 of verbal review 2, OG explanation says that "the areas described would suffer from both little water and few services at the same time, so the correct conjunction is and, not or".
The below is modified version of the sentence:
"the new law permits fewer people to live in areas where there are little water or few services.
I know that "and" and "or" convey different meanings, but I do not see any illogical meaning if we use "or" instead of "and".
Please explain what the illogical meaning is if we use "or".
These three sentences all mean the same thing:
We have no coffee and no tea.We have no coffee or tea.We have neither coffee nor tea.If necessary, just memorize this -- "no x or y" is the same as "no x and no y". Both of them mean that we're completely lacking both things.
If you think about the logic of that one for a second, though, it should make intuitive sense. I.e., "no x or y" is like being asked "Do you have x or y?" and saying no. "No x and no y" is like being asked, separately, "Do you have x?" and "Do you have y?", and saying no to both.
No coffee or no tea would also make sense, although its meaning would be different: this time, if we lack
one of those things, the statement is still true.
E.g.,
Sherry will not date a man with no job or no life plan. --> She wants a man with both. If a man has just one, but not the other, Sherry won't date him.
On the other hand,
no x and y is meaningless. It just doesn't make sense.
If you actually want to say, specifically, that someone HAS "y" but LACKS "x", then you wouldn't write that as "no x and y". You'd write that in a more direct way, such as
with y but without x or
has y but lacks x.