Question:
In a recent psychological survey, participants aged 40 to 60 were asked to name the song that had made the greatest emotional impact on their lives. Remarkably, in 86 percent of cases, the participant named a song that was popular when he or she was between thirteen and seventeen years old. Clearly, music has an inherently greater emotional effect on teenagers than on people of other ages.
Each of the following, if true, weakens the argument presented above EXCEPT
A) All of the other questions asked during the survey centered around the participants' teenage years.
B) People are more likely to have deeper emotional responses to life events, and to associate contemporaneous songs with those events, during the teenage years than at other times of life.
C) People tend to retain and recall emotionally infused memories with greater depth, detail, and accuracy than other memories.
D) People tend to listen to a much greater number of songs during the teenage years than at other times of life.
E) Most of the songs cited by the survey respondents retained their popularity for twenty or more years.
I originally answered B, but the correct answer is C. After reading the explanations of answers, I understand why C is correct. I view this as more of an irrelevant answer rather than one that strengthens. My thought process is that the conclusion of the argument relates to teenage years, while answer C simply focuses on the relationship of music and emotional memories. There is no tie-in to music having a greater emotional effect for teens.
I am having a hard time coming to terms with B being incorrect, and hope someone can explain more thoroughly than the CAT explanation. From reading the explanation, is it simply that music is associated with emotional (often time teenage) events, yet the conclusion states that music has an effect (rather than association)?
Thanks in advance for reading/commenting