having done cannot modify a noun?

by **MichaelZ337** Sat Mar 21, 2015 11:59 pm

Hi Ron

I heard a rule that "having done" cannot modify a noun, because the meaning is not logical? Can we use this rule to tackle SC questions?

For example, question 70 of the Guide, in choice C:

The first trenches having been cut into..... , have yielded........

Can we use this rule to eliminate C? or how do you tell that C is wrong?

Thank you!

by **RonPurewal** Sun Mar 22, 2015 1:03 am

i treated this issue here:
post112004.html#p112004

read that post, as well as the 2 posts below it.

MOST IMPORTANTLY, pay attention to the caveat in the last of those three posts (= "this is not something you actually need for this exam").

by **MichaelZ337** Sun Mar 22, 2015 1:48 am

Hi Ron

thanks! your post is very helpful.

Ok, I've got the rule here. Next time, is it possible that I state the question number in the OG for you to answer? or if I paraphrase the sentence before posting?

I do have some concerns about some questions. Thanks :)

Michael

by **RonPurewal** Wed Mar 25, 2015 2:13 am

rather than giving you a direct answer, i'll just respond to that with "go ahead, but we may limit the number of such posts that we answer".
(:

having done cannot modify a noun?

having done cannot modify a noun?

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