Having been done modify nouns

[JaneC643]

Hi,
A lot of wrong question are trying to use such structure "no comma+having been done" to modify the preceding noun. For example, "In 1920, the automobile industry dominated the American economy, with one of every eight workers having been employed in automobile-related jobs". The correct sentence should be "In 1920, the automobile industry dominated the American economy, with one of every eight workers employed in automobile-related jobs". So, what's the problem with "having been done"? Can we directly eliminate the choice that contain "no comma +having been done" to modify the preceding noun?
Thanks in advance,
Jane

[RonPurewal]

in that context:
"employed..." = in the same timeframe as the main sentence
"having been employed..." = in an earlier timeframe

here we're clearly talking about people who were "employed" in the timeframe of the sentence, so we want the former of these.

[RonPurewal]

so, this kind of modifier is certainly possible—if you actually want to describe something that happened in an earlier timeframe. (that timeframe could lead up to the timeframe of the sentence, or it could be much earlier.)

e.g.,
james, having been unemployed for over 6 months, was beginning to lose faith in his ability to find work.

[JaneC643]

so, this kind of modifier is certainly possible—if you actually want to describe something that happened in an earlier timeframe. (that timeframe could lead up to the timeframe of the sentence, or it could be much earlier.)

e.g.,
james, having been unemployed for over 6 months, was beginning to lose faith in his ability to find work.

Hi, Ron,
I really appreciate your instant reply.

In the sentence you give me, does "having been unemployed..." modify "James"? If it is true, why we use "comma" to separate them? Can we just say "James having been unemployed for over 6 months was beginning to lose faith in his ability to find work"? And could you also give me a sentence that use" having been done" to modify preceding noun but without comma between them?

Sorry for a lot of questions, and last I really appreciate what you did for us!
Jane

[RonPurewal]

the GMAT exam does not test the presence or absence of punctuation.
so, since this is a GMAT forum, it wouldn't make sense for us to address those questions.