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mingchenglee7654
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have to VS. has

by mingchenglee7654 Wed Aug 31, 2011 7:33 pm

Hi, i have a question about the following sentence.

The financial industry "appears to have" made a long-awaited recovery.

Can i say:

The financial industry "appears that it has" made a long-awaited recovery.

by changing the sentence to this way? why or why not?????????

Thank you !
tim
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Re: have to VS. has

by tim Wed Oct 19, 2011 4:58 pm

You cannot make this change, as "appears" does not work this way. You cannot say "appears that" unless you have "it" in front of the verb, as in "it appears that this sentence is correct." Even then, this usage is very colloquial and not likely to be found on the GMAT. Most proper uses of "appears" on the GMAT will be followed with the word "to"..
Tim Sanders
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