Long time forum watcher first time poster. I recently took the GMAT (for the 5th and final time) and scored a 690 (Q47-78%; V39-87%) and was wondering why my score was a 690 instead of a 700. I have searched high and low on the internet and have not been able to find a 690 total score with that Q/V split. All of the Q47/V39's I see equate to a 700 combined score. I have surmised that one of three things is happening... 1) every post that I read describing the scaled score breakdowns on the various GMAT blogs (beatthegmat, GMATClub, MGMAT, etc,) is inaccurate and the people posting are lying about their splits and/or combined score...2) the GMAT calculated my total incorrectly, or 3) one can actually have different component verbal and quant scaled scores that aggregate to the same combined score. This third scenario is what I find most troubling because it implies that there is some "black box" or heretofore unknown factor in how the GMAC/GMAT combines the component scores to arrive at a combined score. If this were true, wouldn’t that argue that the test in not at all standardized? In other words you would expect the same component scaled scores to produce the same scaled combined score? I realize that the percentile scores have shifted over time in terms of which percentile corresponds to which scaled score.
Have contacted GMAC about this and it's working its way through some maze of a bureaucracy as Pearson is only the administrator, there is actually a third party who runs the GMAT program and a second third party who examines the test results and does the scoring. This all sounds like its set up to discourage and/or deter customers from contacting them. At any rate, would love someone’s feedback on whether it’s worth fighting or if there is a plausible explanation for my combined score.