EIV page 23, problem 10

[Gregory Cole]

In this equation is a+b/b manipulated by a/b + b/b, then the b/b becomes 1?

[Gregory Cole]

Really, no one can help?

[RonPurewal]

Really, no one can help?

don't do this -- i.e., don't post a message that says "please answer my question".
this is called "bumping" the thread; it brings the thread up to the most recent position in the folder.

the problem, of course -- besides the fact that "reminder posts" are obnoxious, rude, and unprofessional -- is that we answer the posts strictly in order from oldest to newest. therefore, if you post a message, with no content, that says "please answer this post", then you are moving the thread to the LAST place in the queue.

please be patient -- we will get to all of the threads. if you make posts like this one, you're just making yourself wait longer.

thanks.

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also, from now on, please post threads in the correct folder. this folder is for GMAT PREP SOFTWARE problems only, so this question doesn't belong here.

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in answer to the question itself, yes, a fraction always equals 1 if its numerator and denominator are the same.