by RonPurewal Fri Nov 09, 2007 4:00 am
First off, there's a definite symmetry between the two answer choices: they're essentially the same type of information (they both tell you that ONE of the groups' average salary is X more/less than the average). Because they provide exactly the same kind of information, if one of them works by itself, then the other should too. Therefore, it's unlikely that A or B will be the answer.
Anyway:
Important fact: If you have a weighted average of TWO groups, then the average of the BIGGER group will be closer to the overall average than will the average of the smaller group.
(1) itself: Consider a couple of different cases:
* Average salary of the managers is 5000 less than the average, but the average salary of the directors is, say, only 1000 greater. By the above principle, there are a lot more directors.
* Average salary of the managers is 5000 less than the average, but the average salary of the directors is, say, 20,000 greater. By the above principle, there are a lot more managers.
* so (1) is insufficient by itself.
(2) Use exactly the same reasoning to deduce that (2) is insufficient by itself.
Taken together: Let P stand for the proportion of managers, and let A stand for the average salary. Then each of the managers makes A - 5000, and each of the directors makes A + 15000. Also, if the proportion of managers is P, then the proportion of directors is 1 - P.
Using the equation for weighted averages,
P(A - 5000) + (1 - P)(A + 15000) = A
PA - 5000P + A - PA + 15000 - 15000P = A
15000 - 20000P = 0
P = 3/4
Three-fourths of the group consists of managers. Answer = C