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adhithya2007
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doubt about pronoun reference

by adhithya2007 Tue Jul 26, 2011 10:19 pm

Intar, the oldest Hispanic theater company in New York, has moved away from the Spanish classics and now it draws....

Consider the above sample sentence
I know this question has been solved by ron in other forum but my query is regarding the pronoun reference
Does the pronoun 'it' have multiple referants here as in does 'it' refer to New York and Intar
or
since the phrase 'the oldest Hispanic theater company in New York'
is an additive phrase we can say that 'it' has only a single antecedent i.e.Intar
plase explain,iam very confused about this concept.
singh.181
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Re: doubt about pronoun reference

by singh.181 Wed Jul 27, 2011 3:11 am

Intar, the oldest Hispanic theater company in New York, has moved away from the Spanish classics and now it draws....

In clause, Intar, the oldest Hispanic theater company in New York, has moved away from the Spanish classics

"Intar" plays the role of Subject,

In clause, now it draws....
"it" also plays the role of subject

So, "it" refers to "Itar", not "New York" which is part of non-essential modifier and is object of preposition.
jnelson0612
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Re: doubt about pronoun reference

by jnelson0612 Thu Aug 11, 2011 11:38 pm

singh is correct!
Jamie Nelson
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jose_kuw
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Re: doubt about pronoun reference

by jose_kuw Thu Oct 09, 2014 10:48 pm

OG says that :" because there is no comma after "classics" the use of "it" creates an ungrammatical construction"

would it be correct if we put a comma as below:

Intar, the oldest Hispanic theater company in New
York, has moved away from the Spanish classics, and
now it draws ont he works both of contemporary
Hispanic authors who live abroad and of those in the
United States.

the comma makes now two independent clause connected by comma+coordinating conjunction.

could you please help me to understand what difference in meaning the comma creates in the following examples.

1.Intar has moved away and it(intar) draws.(without comma)
2.Intar has moved away, and it(intar) draws( with comma so 2 independent clause , having 2 separate things)
RonPurewal
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Re: doubt about pronoun reference

by RonPurewal Fri Oct 10, 2014 4:40 am

The gmat exam NEVER tests the presence or absence of punctuation. Never ever ever.

If the answer key mentions such a thing, then it's spurious and you should ignore it. (The OG answer keys are outsourced to writers of lesser ability; they contain a sizable number of mistakes and misrepresentations, especially in SC.)
cathyl139
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Re: doubt about pronoun reference

by cathyl139 Fri Oct 24, 2014 7:59 pm

I have a question that for the Answer E, OG says: now modifies the verb and should precede it.

I don't understand how NOW modifies the verb?

Also, it says both….and construction is violated, does that mean for parallelism, the 2 part paralleled must exactly the same ?



Thanks!
Cathy~
RonPurewal
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Re: doubt about pronoun reference

by RonPurewal Mon Oct 27, 2014 12:23 am

since this thread is about an OG problem, we can't allow it to continue. please read the forum rules.

you can create a question about this topic if you can do so without explicitly citing the OG problem itself. if you wish to do that, please go ahead and start a new thread.

thanks.