In a recent poll, 71% of respondents reported that they cast votes in the most recent national election. Voting records show, however, that only 60% of eligible voters actually voted in that election.
Which of the following pieces of evidence, if true, would provide the best explanation for the discrepancy?
A. The margin of error for the survey was plus or minus 5% points
B. 15% of the surveys respondents were living overseas the time of the election.
C. Prior research shows that people who actually do vote are also more likely to respond to polls than those who do not vote.
D. ......
E. Polls abt voting behavior typically have margins of error within +/- 3% points
Per explanation, A is ruled out 'coz it discusses about only one premise. E is ruled out coz the answer is categorized under "Wrong direction" type. Now my question is, don't both A and E have the same issue wherein the margin for error does not explain the discrepancy? If that is the case, why is that both are categorized under 2 different type of wrong answers?
Also, i don't completely comprehend how C addresses the discrepancy. Can someone help me in getting a better understanding on this?
Thanks.