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Anon
 
 

Comparisions

by Anon Fri Jun 27, 2008 2:21 pm

X studies twice as much to score well as Y does

Is the above statement acceptable.... in terms of comparison

if it is ... then what does "DOES" refer to -- "studies" or "studies to score well "??


Thanks
Anon
rfernandez
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by rfernandez Fri Jul 04, 2008 3:37 am

The comparison is fine. And I suppose "does" refers to "studies to score well."

Did this question originate from a GMAT question? One that can be posted on this site?