For-profit colleges serve far fewer students than either public or private non-profit colleges. At the same time, relative to non-profit colleges, for-profit colleges draw a disproportionate share of federal and state financial aid, such as tuition grants and guaranteed loans, for their students. It must be, then, that for-profit colleges enroll a greater proportion of financially disadvantaged students than do non-profit colleges.
The conclusion above depends on which of the following assumptions?
A. Public non-profit colleges and private non-profit colleges enroll a similar proportion of financially disadvantaged students.
B. For-profit colleges do not engage in fraudulent practices in helping their students obtain unneeded federal and state financial aid.
C. The number of students receiving federal and state financial aid at for-profit colleges is greater than the number of students receiving federal and state financial aid at non-profit colleges.
D. For-profit colleges are of similar educational quality as non-profit colleges.
E. The majority of students at for-profit colleges do not default on repayment of their loans after they complete college.
The solutions says b, and I can see that b is of assumption type "eliminates alternative cause." However, "fraudulent practices" turned me off when I was going through the ACs and I didn't even bother reading the rest, assuming that b was irrelevant. C seems like a more attractive answer, just because it is closer to the conclusion: "for-profit colleges enroll a greater proportion of financially disadvantaged students." If c were true, then we could validate the conclusion because we already know that for-profit colleges enroll a fewer number of students total (higher number of students with financial aid to number of students enrolled equates to higher proportion?)
I'd really appreciate any help in clarifying this! :)