Can we refer to a possessive noun by a possessive pronoun

by **Gupta** Sat Apr 12, 2008 4:15 pm

Q: Can we refer to a possessive noun by a possessive pronoun?

for e.g. The public's opinion lie in its inherent misconception about the judgment.

by **Guest** Sun Apr 13, 2008 10:14 am

Yes we can

by **RonPurewal** Tue Apr 15, 2008 2:26 am

yes.

although ... not the other way around (the dreaded 'possessive poison' rule - which is so completely unimportant that, although cited by gmac, it has never been the deciding factor in any official problem). if you have any trouble with that rule, i suggest that you forget all about it, because the odds that it will ever actually decide the correct answer to a problem are infinitesimal.