(GMAT Prep Exam)
A 1972 agreement between Canada and the United States reduced the amount of phosphates that municipalities had been allowed to dump into the Great Lakes.
(A) reduced the amount of phosphates that municipalities had been allowed to dump
(B) reduced the phosphate amount that municipalities had been dumping
(C) reduces the phosphate amount municipalities have been allowed to dump
(D) reduced the amount of phosphates that municipalities are allowed to dump
(E) reduces the amount of phosphates allowed for dumping by municipalities
OA: D
Please help clarify this for me.
Since more then one action occurred at different times in the past, we must use the past perfect tense for the earlier action and the simple past for the later action (SOURCE: MGMAT SC BOOK pg. 46)
I chose A because it describes the on going action in the past using past perfect (had been) and uses the simple past verb form (reduced) to describe the action that impacted the dumping.
SPOILER:
The correct answer tells us that the agreement reduced the amount of phosphates the muni's "are allowed to dump". This completely distorts the meaning of the sentence. The original example reads like a chronological recount of history. By putting the present tense in the sentence, we are erroneously implying that the agreement is still valid today.
What if the sentence said, "A 1472 agreement between Canada and the United States reduced the amount of phosphates that municipalities had been allowed to dump into the Great Lakes."
Would it still be correct to change it to, "A 1472 agreement between Canada and the United States reduced the amount of phosphates that municipalities are allowed to dump into the Great Lakes."
The first example seems so much better!!!! Help!